Exam Code: ISEB-SWT2
Exam Name: ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level
Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four defect reports submitted.
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
– Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
– Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
– Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Which of the following types of defect are typically found in reviews rather than in dynamic testing?
a. Deviations from standards.
b. Defects in interface implementation.
c. Poor maintainability of code.
d. Poor performance of the system.
e. Defects in requirements.
A. a, c and e.
B. a, b and d.
C. b, d and e.
D. a, c and d.
During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Which of the following BEST describes a data-driven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?
a. Identifying the version of software under test.
b. Controlling the version of testware items.
c. Developing new testware items.
d. Tracking changes to testware items.
e. Analysing the need for new testware items.
A. b, d and e.
B. b, c and d.
C. a, b and d.
D. a, c and e.
What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process?
a. Analyse the test basis documents.
b. Define the expected results.
c. Create the test execution schedule.
d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions
A. d, a, c, b
B. a, d, b, c
C. a, b, c, d
D. a, b, d, c
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Testing cannot prove that software is incorrect.
B. Testing can prove that software is either correct or incorrect.
C. Testing cannot prove that software is correct.
D. Testing can prove that software is correct.
Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard V-model after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
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